Two very interesting points i havent quite digested yet: 1. Because the United States has a per capita gun ownership rate that is one of the highest in the Western world, the police must also be heavily militarized. This makes sense (and i strongly suspect it anyway), though without cited evidence i cant tell whether its considered common knowledge or its just this experts opinion. 2. For the U.S. police to demilitarize, it will require public outcry after an incident in which bodily harm is caused by the police to an armed “vulnerable individual.” But such a scenario is highly unlikely. Unlikely, sure...but i dont follow the logic behind the conditional. Am i missing something?
Posted on: Fri, 22 Aug 2014 00:16:46 +0000
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