I AM CONFUSED? CAN ANYONE HELP ME? WHY DOES THE WEST CONSIDER BOKO HARAM TERRORISTS BUT PLACE AN ARMS EMBARGO ON THE NIGERIAN STATE ON THE GROUNDS THAT THE ARMS WILL BE USED TO VIOLATE BOKO HARAMS HUMAN RIGHT AND YER CRITICIZE THE NIGERIAN GOVERNMENT FOR NOT STOPPING BOKO HARAMS TERRORISM? Im confused. A few weeks ago we were told in the West that people occupying government buildings in Ukraine was a very good thing. These people, we were told by our political leaders and elite media commentators, were pro-democracy protestors. The US government warned the Ukrainian authorities against using force against these pro-democracy protestors even if, according to the pictures we saw, some of them were neo-Nazis who were throwing Molotov cocktails and other things at the police and smashing up statues and setting fire to buildings. Now, just a few weeks later, were told that people occupying government buildings in Ukraine are not pro-democracy protestors but terrorists or militants. Why was the occupation of government buildings in Ukraine a very good thing in January, but it is a very bad thing in April? Why was the use of force by the authorities against protestors completely unacceptable in January, but acceptable now? I repeat: Im confused. Can anyone help me?
Posted on: Wed, 19 Nov 2014 20:47:32 +0000
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