I hear many jurisdictions are discussing reducing payments to - TopicsExpress

I hear many jurisdictions are discussing reducing payments to retired employees based on the argument they simply don’t have the money. This brings up a few questions in my mind: 1) Can we then assume any jurisdiction can on its own say-so then back out of any contracts simply on the assertion its obligation is too burdensome? If so, why would anybody enter into a contract that does not include a pre-payment? 2) Are governments (local, state, federal) exempt from contract law? How public must an entity be to be exempt? In short: where is the fairness?

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