The Definite Article Matters Regardless whether used in the English: in the original it marks a distinction, thus being another window for revelation. Perhaps John 1.1+2 is an example. Note that the third part of verse 1, in the Greek, has no article preceeding God: In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with ([the]) God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with ([the]) God. The same with the law in Romans: when the English translations place a the before law, it does not necessarily mean the Greek has it written there; and I doubt this circumstance is just a matter of Greek grammar. Ivan Panin said in the preface of his Numeric English New Testament: The definite article ὁ, the, is in the Greek permitted where the English refuses it. Thus the Greek says, Abraham begat the Isaac. But the rendering Abraham begat Isaac, is not a true account of the matter, since the very next word, Isaac begat the Jacob, has not the article. It is fair neither to Author nor to reader, not to apprize the reader that of the two Isaacs side by side one has the article, and the other has not. Unfair to the Author, since Matthew (not to say the Holy Spirit Himself), like any serious writer, may be presumed to have had a reason for such marked distinction. Unfair to the reader, since he has a right to know that in the original a bell as it were is rung to attract his attention: Here, forsooth, give heed, reader, Article here, no article there: a distinction, and it is for thee to find wherein it is.
Posted on: Sun, 23 Nov 2014 10:59:25 +0000