This is what I am talking about. My Sociology professor wants to play games, then I will play along, but I will play with facts and be non-bias. The Constitution, as written in 1787, did not forbid succession. The CSA (Confederate States of America) was in there Constitutional right to secede from the Union. No I am not a Neo-Confederate, but I am an accurate historian. The revolutionary right of secession is based on the Declaration of Independence and the philosophy of Thomas Jefferson and John Locke, that: Whenever any form of government becomes destructive of the ends for which it was established, it is the right of the people to alter or abolish it, and to institute new government, . . . There had to be a specific constitutional prohibition on secession for it to be illegal. Conversely, there did not have to be a specific constitutional affirmation of the right of secession for it to be legal. Why? Because the 10th Amendment to the United States Constitution states: The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people. Therefore this was not a treasonous act against the United States.
Posted on: Tue, 01 Apr 2014 21:59:15 +0000