-100 plus MCQs BANK - JOIN US [ BEST #Eduholics GROUP FOR #MCQs] facebook/eduholics #MCAT #ECAT #EDUCATION #MCQS #APTITUDETEST ----------- 1. What is the net static electric charge on a metal sphere having an excess of +3 elementary charges? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 4.7 x 10 B. 8.4 x 10 C. 4.8 x 10 D. 8.7 x 1019 C 2. A hydrogen atom could have an electron energy level transition from n=2 to n=3 by absorbing a photon having an energy of? A. 1.89 eV B. 2.04 eV C. 2.25 eV D. 2.87 eV 3. Two solid metal blocks are placed in an insulated container. If there is a net flow of heat between the blocks, they must have different? A. Initial temperatures B. Specific Heat values C. Melting points D. Heats of fusion 4. A (P type) semiconductor is formed by adding impurities, which provide extra ____. A. Electrons B. Neutrons C. Photons D. Holes 5. A student measures a current of .05 ampere through a P type semiconductor. If the battery connections are reversed, the current through the semiconductor will be? A. Less than .05 ampere B. Greater than .05 ampere C. The same 6. What is the approximate bind energy of a helium nucleus that has a mass defect of 5.2 x 10-29 kilogram? A. 4.6 x 10 B. 4.6 x 10 C. 4.7 x 10 D. 4.7 x 10-18 7. Which particle cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron D. Alpha particle 8. A 96 gram sample of a radioactive nuclide is placed in a container. After 12 minutes only 6 grams of the sample has not yet decayed. What is the half life of the nuclide? A. 3 minutes B. 4 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 6 minutes 9. The principal reason for using neutrons to bombard a nucleus is that neutrons? A. Have a relatively low atomic mass B. Can be easily accelerated C. Have a very high kinetic energy D. Are not repelled by the nucleus 10. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between an electron and a proton separated by a distance of 1.0 x 10-10 meter? A. 1.0 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 2.0 x 10 D. 3.05 x 10-47 N 11. A sphere has a net excess charge of -4.8 x 10-19 coulomb. The sphere must have an excess of ______. A. 1 Electron B. 1 Proton C. 3 Electrons D. 3 Protons 12. An excited hydrogen atom returns to its ground state. A possible energy change for the atom is? A. Loss of 10.20 eV B. Gain of 10.20 eV C. Loss of 11.70 eV D. Gain of 11.70 eV 13. During a collision between a proton and an electron there is conservation of _____. A. Energy, only B. Momentum, only C. Energy and Momentum D. Neither Energy or Momentum 14. As the temperature of a surface increases, how does the rate of thermionic emission change? A. Electrons are emitted at a lower rate. B. Electrons are emitted at a higher rate. C. Protons are emitted at a lower rate. D. Protons are emitted at a higher rate. Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B ---------------- Nuclear Physics Practice Problems 1. What is the net static electric charge on a metal sphere having an excess of +3 elementary charges? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 4.7 x 10 B. 8.4 x 10 C. 4.8 x 10 D. 8.7 x 1019 C 2. A hydrogen atom could have an electron energy level transition from n=2 to n=3 by absorbing a photon having an energy of? A. 1.89 eV B. 2.04 eV C. 2.25 eV D. 2.87 eV 3. Two solid metal blocks are placed in an insulated container. If there is a net flow of heat between the blocks, they must have different? A. Initial temperatures B. Specific Heat values C. Melting points D. Heats of fusion 4. A (P type) semiconductor is formed by adding impurities, which provide extra ____. A. Electrons B. Neutrons C. Photons D. Holes 5. A student measures a current of .05 ampere through a P type semiconductor. If the battery connections are reversed, the current through the semiconductor will be? A. Less than .05 ampere B. Greater than .05 ampere C. The same 6. What is the approximate bind energy of a helium nucleus that has a mass defect of 5.2 x 10-29 kilogram? A. 4.6 x 10 B. 4.6 x 10 C. 4.7 x 10 D. 4.7 x 10-18 7. Which particle cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron D. Alpha particle 8. A 96 gram sample of a radioactive nuclide is placed in a container. After 12 minutes only 6 grams of the sample has not yet decayed. What is the half life of the nuclide? A. 3 minutes B. 4 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 6 minutes 9. The principal reason for using neutrons to bombard a nucleus is that neutrons? A. Have a relatively low atomic mass B. Can be easily accelerated C. Have a very high kinetic energy D. Are not repelled by the nucleus 10. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between an electron and a proton separated by a distance of 1.0 x 10-10 meter? A. 1.0 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 2.0 x 10 D. 3.05 x 10-47 N 11. A sphere has a net excess charge of -4.8 x 10-19 coulomb. The sphere must have an excess of ______. A. 1 Electron B. 1 Proton C. 3 Electrons D. 3 Protons 12. An excited hydrogen atom returns to its ground state. A possible energy change for the atom is? A. Loss of 10.20 eV B. Gain of 10.20 eV C. Loss of 11.70 eV D. Gain of 11.70 eV 13. During a collision between a proton and an electron there is conservation of _____. A. Energy, only B. Momentum, only C. Energy and Momentum D. Neither Energy or Momentum 14. As the temperature of a surface increases, how does the rate of thermionic emission change? A. Electrons are emitted at a lower rate. B. Electrons are emitted at a higher rate. C. Protons are emitted at a lower rate. D. Protons are emitted at a higher rate. Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B ----------- 1. An atom with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2 has an incomplete MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 2p sublevel B. Second principal energy level C. Third principal energy level D. 4s sublevel 2. What is the total number of electrons in a completely filled fourth principal level? A. 8 B. 10 C. 16 D. 32 3. The characteristic bright line spectrum of an element is produced when its electrons A. Form a covalent bond B. Form an ionic bond C. Move to a higher energy state D. Move to a lower energy state 4. Which emanation has no mass and no charge? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Neutron 5. In which system do molecule-ion attractions exist? A. NaCl(aq) B. NaCl(s) C. C6H12O6(aq) D. C6H12O6(s) 6. A particle accelerator can increase the kinetic energy of A. An alpha particle and a beta particle B. An alpha particle and a neutron C. A gamma ray and a beta particle D. A neutron and a gamma ray 7. What is the total number of electrons needed to completely fill all of the orbitals in an atoms second principal energy level? A. 16 B. 2 C. 8 D. 4 8. An atom in an excited state can have an electron configuration of A. 1s22s2 B. 1s22p1 C. 1s22p2 D. 1s22s22p5 E. 1s22s22p6 9. Compared to the charge and mass of a proton an electron has A. The same charge and smaller mass B. The same charge and the same mass C. The opposite charge and smaller mass D. The opposite charge and the same mass 10. What is the total number of sublevels in the fourth principal energy level? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 11. Which atom in the ground state has only one unpaired electron in its valence shell? A. Aluminum B. Silicon C. Phosphorus D. Sulfur 12. The shape and bonding of a diatomic bromine molecule are best described as A. Symmetrical and polar B. Symmetrical and nonpolar C. Asymmetrical and polar D. Asymmetrical and nonpolar 13. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4? A. 0 B. -2 C. +6 D. +4 14. When alpha particles are used to bombard gold foil, most of the alpha particles pass through undeflected. This result indicates that most of the volume of gold atom consists of A. Neutrons B. Protons C. Deuterons D. Unoccupied space 15. When an alpha particle is emitted by an atom, the atomic number of the atom will A. Decrease by 2 B. Increase by 2 C. Decrease by 4 D. Increase by 4 16. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3p4? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Aluminum 13 B. Silicon 14 C. Sulfur 16 D. Chlorine 17 17. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3p6? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Sulfur 16 B. Chlorine 17 C. Argon 18 D. Potassium 19 18. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3s1? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Neon 10 B. Sodium 11 C. Magnesium 12 D. Aluminum 13 19. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 2p4? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Nitrogen 7 B. Oxygen 8 C. Neon 10 D. Magnesium 12 20. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be found in the orbital denoted by the letter f? A. 10 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18 Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. B ------ Biochemistry Practice Questions ------------------------------------------ 1. Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. UAA B. AGU C. AUG D. UGA 2. Which of the types of RNA is the smallest? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA 3. Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine? A. C B. T C. U D. G 4. Which of the following is a correctly paired set of DNA nucleotides? A. A-G B. C-G C. A-U D. G-T 5. Which of the following characterizes a Western blot? A. Antibody/protein hybridization B. DNA/RNA combination C. RNA transcription D. Polymerase chain reaction 6. Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle? A. G2 B. G1 C. S D. G0 7. Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome? A. XXII B. XXI C. XIIX D. XV 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law? A. Mating between species occurs at a set rate. B. Migration is a considerable factor. C. Mutation occurs at the locus D. Genotype selection does not occur at the locus 9. Which of the following is not an activated carrier? A. ATP B. SAM C. TPP D. GMP 10. The end product of the TCA cycle produces ____ NADH. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 11. How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 12. Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)? A. Melatonin B. Serotonin C. Creatine D. Niacin Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C --- Organic Chemistry Practice Questions 1. Which chemical formula is both an empirical formula and a molecular formula? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. CH4 B. C2H6 C. CH3COOH D. CH3CH2COOCH3 2. Which element is present in all organic compounds? A. Hydrogen B. Nitrogen C. Carbon D. Oxygen 3. What products are obtained with CH4(g) burns completely in an excess of oxygen? A. CO and H2O B. CO and C C. CO2 and H2O D. CO2 and CO 4. Which hydrocarbon is a member of the alkene series? A. C2H2 B. C3H6 C. C4H10 D. C4H12 5. Which formula represents butane? A. CH3CH3 B. CH3CH2CH3 C. CH3CH2CH2CH3 D. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 6. A hydrocarbon molecule is considered to be saturated if the molecule contains A. Single covalent bonds, only B. A double covalent bond, only C. A triple covalent bond D. Single and double covalent bonds 7. As a chemical bond forms between 2 hydrogen atoms in a system, energy is released and the stability of the system A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same 8. In a chemical reaction, as the species is oxidized, its oxidation number A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains the same 9. A hydrocarbon with no ring structure, no double or triple bonds is called an ______. A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 10. A hydrocarbon double bonds and no triple bond configuration is called an ______. A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 11. A hydrocarbon with triple bonds is called an _____ A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 12. Which of the following is the molecular formula for ethylene? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 13. Which of the following is the molecular formula for ethane? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 14. Which of the following is the molecular formula for acetylene? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 15. Which of the following is the molecular formula for butane? A. C2H B. C2H6 C. C4H8 D. C4H10 16. Which of the following is the molecular formula for hexane? A. C5H11 B. C5H12 C. C6H12 D. C6H14 17. Which of the following is the molecular formula for pentane? A. C5H11 B. C5H12 C. C6H12 D. C6H14 Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. B ------ 1. What is the pressure of a mixture of CO2, SO2 and H20 gases, if each gas has a partial pressure of 250 torr? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 250 torr B. 500 torr C. 750 torr D. 1,000 torr 2. A gas sample has a volume of 25.0 milliliters at a pressure of 1.0 atmosphere. If the volume increases to 50.0 milliliters and the temperature remains constant, the new pressure will be A. 1.0 atm B. 2.0 atm C. .250 atm D. .500 atm 3. An increase of the temperature of a system at equilibrium favors the A. Endothermic reaction and decreases its rate B. Endothermic reaction and increases its rate C. Exothermic reaction and decreases its rate D. Exothermic reaction and increases its rate 4. A sample of oxygen gas in a closed system has a volume of 200 milliliters at 600 K. If the pressure is held constant and the temperature is lowered to 300 K, the volume of the gas will be A. 100 ml B. 200 ml C. 300 ml D. 400 ml 5. Which sample of water will have the highest water pressure? A. 10.0 mL at 62° C B. 20.0 mL at 52° C C. 30.0 mL at 42° C D. 40.0 mL at 32° C 6. An assumption of the kinetic energy of gases is that the particles of a gas have A. Little attraction for each other and a significant volume B. Little attraction for each other and an insignificant volume C. Strong attraction for each other and a significant volume D. Strong attraction for each other and an insignificant volume 7. What is the volume occupied by 2.0 moles of Ar(g) at STP? A. 22.4 L B. 44.8 L C. 89.6 L D. 179 L 8. Which gas is least likely to obey the ideal gas laws at very high temperatures and very low temperatures? A. Kr B. Ne C. He D. Xe 9. A gas at STP has a volume of 1.0 liters. If the pressure is doubled and the temperature remains constant, the new volume of the gas will be A. .25 L B. 2.0 L C. .50 L D. 4.0 L 10. At 1 atmosphere of pressure, 25.0 grams of a compound at its boiling point is converted to a gas by the addition of 8,180 calories. What is the heat of vaporization for this compound, in calories per gram? A. 25.0 cal/g B. 327 cal/g C. 540 cal/g D. 8,140 cal/g Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. B ---------- . Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. Plasmid B. Pilus C. Capsule D. Plasma Membrane 2. Which of the following is the most important structure related to microbial attachment to cells? A. Flagellum B. Plasmid C. Peptidoglycan D. Glycocalix 3. Which of the following is not a gram-negative bug? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Vibrio cholerae C. Escherichia coli D. Bordetella pertussis 4. Which of the following is not true related to endotoxins? A. Endotoxins are secreted from cells. B. Can be linked to Meningococcemia C. Produced by gram negative microorganisms D. Can cause fever 5. Which of the following microorganisms stain well? A. Escherichia coli B. Legionella pneumophila C. Treponema D. Chlamydia 6. Which of the following microorganisms are not matched correctly with the appropriate isolation media? A. Fungi - Sabourands agar B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Pink colonies media C. Haemophilus influenzae - Chocolate agar D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Lowenstein-Jensen agar 7. Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly? A. Cellulitis - Pasteurella multocida B. Tularemia - Francisella tularensis C. Gastritis - Heliobacter pylori D. Lyme disease - Yersinia pestis 8. Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly? A. Treponema pallidum - Syphilis B. Tinea nigra - Cladosporium werneckii C. Borrelia burgdorferi - Lyme disease D. Yersinia enterocolitica - Diptheria 9. Which of the following is not true concerning Staphylococcus aureus? A. S. aureus is related to inflammation. B. S. aureus can cause pneumonia C. S. aureus can lead to acute bacterial endocarditis D. S. aureus does not make coagulase 10. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not linked to Haemophilus influenzae? A. Otitis media B. Pneumonia C. Malaria D. Epiglottis 11. The Tsetse fly is a transmission factor for which of the following organisms? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Trypanosoma gambiense C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Toxoplasma 12. The Ixodes tick is a transmission factor for which of the following organisms? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Leishmania donovani C. Babesia D. Giardia lamblia 13. Chagas disease is commonly treated with Nifurtimox and is linked to the ____ microorganism. A. Naegleria B. Schistosoma C. Wucheria bancrofti D. Trypanosoma cruzi 14. Which of the following is not fungal related? A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Tinea nigra D. Chlamydiae 15. Which of the following is not a DNA virus? A. Adenovirus B. Calicivirus C. Papovirus D. Poxvirus 16. Which of the following is not a RNA virus? A. Reovirus B. Orthomyxovirus C. Deltavirus D. Herpesvirus 17. Which of the following viruses is not a double strand linear DNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. Papovavirus C. Adenovirus D. Herpesvirus 18. Which of the following viruses is not a single strand linear RNA virus? A. Togavirus B. Retrovirus C. Bunyavirus D. Picornavirus 19. The Tzanck test is not used on which of the following viruses? A. VZV B. HSV-2 C. HHV-8 D. HSV-1 20. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to UTIs? A. E. coli B. Pseudomonas C. Klebsiella D. Haemophilus Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D ---------------------- For Further MCQs: Visit our page/group JOIN US [ BEST #Eduholics GROUP FOR #MCQs] facebook/groups/573175756133768 facebook/eduholics #MCAT #ECAT #EDUCATION #MCQS #APTITUDETEST Eduholics -100 plus MCQs BANK - JOIN US [ BEST #Eduholics GROUP FOR #MCQs] facebook/eduholics #MCAT #ECAT #EDUCATION #MCQS #APTITUDETEST ----------- 1. What is the net static electric charge on a metal sphere having an excess of +3 elementary charges? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 4.7 x 10 B. 8.4 x 10 C. 4.8 x 10 D. 8.7 x 1019 C 2. A hydrogen atom could have an electron energy level transition from n=2 to n=3 by absorbing a photon having an energy of? A. 1.89 eV B. 2.04 eV C. 2.25 eV D. 2.87 eV 3. Two solid metal blocks are placed in an insulated container. If there is a net flow of heat between the blocks, they must have different? A. Initial temperatures B. Specific Heat values C. Melting points D. Heats of fusion 4. A (P type) semiconductor is formed by adding impurities, which provide extra ____. A. Electrons B. Neutrons C. Photons D. Holes 5. A student measures a current of .05 ampere through a P type semiconductor. If the battery connections are reversed, the current through the semiconductor will be? A. Less than .05 ampere B. Greater than .05 ampere C. The same 6. What is the approximate bind energy of a helium nucleus that has a mass defect of 5.2 x 10-29 kilogram? A. 4.6 x 10 B. 4.6 x 10 C. 4.7 x 10 D. 4.7 x 10-18 7. Which particle cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron D. Alpha particle 8. A 96 gram sample of a radioactive nuclide is placed in a container. After 12 minutes only 6 grams of the sample has not yet decayed. What is the half life of the nuclide? A. 3 minutes B. 4 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 6 minutes 9. The principal reason for using neutrons to bombard a nucleus is that neutrons? A. Have a relatively low atomic mass B. Can be easily accelerated C. Have a very high kinetic energy D. Are not repelled by the nucleus 10. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between an electron and a proton separated by a distance of 1.0 x 10-10 meter? A. 1.0 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 2.0 x 10 D. 3.05 x 10-47 N 11. A sphere has a net excess charge of -4.8 x 10-19 coulomb. The sphere must have an excess of ______. A. 1 Electron B. 1 Proton C. 3 Electrons D. 3 Protons 12. An excited hydrogen atom returns to its ground state. A possible energy change for the atom is? A. Loss of 10.20 eV B. Gain of 10.20 eV C. Loss of 11.70 eV D. Gain of 11.70 eV 13. During a collision between a proton and an electron there is conservation of _____. A. Energy, only B. Momentum, only C. Energy and Momentum D. Neither Energy or Momentum 14. As the temperature of a surface increases, how does the rate of thermionic emission change? A. Electrons are emitted at a lower rate. B. Electrons are emitted at a higher rate. C. Protons are emitted at a lower rate. D. Protons are emitted at a higher rate. Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B ---------------- Nuclear Physics Practice Problems 1. What is the net static electric charge on a metal sphere having an excess of +3 elementary charges? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 4.7 x 10 B. 8.4 x 10 C. 4.8 x 10 D. 8.7 x 1019 C 2. A hydrogen atom could have an electron energy level transition from n=2 to n=3 by absorbing a photon having an energy of? A. 1.89 eV B. 2.04 eV C. 2.25 eV D. 2.87 eV 3. Two solid metal blocks are placed in an insulated container. If there is a net flow of heat between the blocks, they must have different? A. Initial temperatures B. Specific Heat values C. Melting points D. Heats of fusion 4. A (P type) semiconductor is formed by adding impurities, which provide extra ____. A. Electrons B. Neutrons C. Photons D. Holes 5. A student measures a current of .05 ampere through a P type semiconductor. If the battery connections are reversed, the current through the semiconductor will be? A. Less than .05 ampere B. Greater than .05 ampere C. The same 6. What is the approximate bind energy of a helium nucleus that has a mass defect of 5.2 x 10-29 kilogram? A. 4.6 x 10 B. 4.6 x 10 C. 4.7 x 10 D. 4.7 x 10-18 7. Which particle cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron D. Alpha particle 8. A 96 gram sample of a radioactive nuclide is placed in a container. After 12 minutes only 6 grams of the sample has not yet decayed. What is the half life of the nuclide? A. 3 minutes B. 4 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 6 minutes 9. The principal reason for using neutrons to bombard a nucleus is that neutrons? A. Have a relatively low atomic mass B. Can be easily accelerated C. Have a very high kinetic energy D. Are not repelled by the nucleus 10. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between an electron and a proton separated by a distance of 1.0 x 10-10 meter? A. 1.0 x 10 B. 1.0 x 10 C. 2.0 x 10 D. 3.05 x 10-47 N 11. A sphere has a net excess charge of -4.8 x 10-19 coulomb. The sphere must have an excess of ______. A. 1 Electron B. 1 Proton C. 3 Electrons D. 3 Protons 12. An excited hydrogen atom returns to its ground state. A possible energy change for the atom is? A. Loss of 10.20 eV B. Gain of 10.20 eV C. Loss of 11.70 eV D. Gain of 11.70 eV 13. During a collision between a proton and an electron there is conservation of _____. A. Energy, only B. Momentum, only C. Energy and Momentum D. Neither Energy or Momentum 14. As the temperature of a surface increases, how does the rate of thermionic emission change? A. Electrons are emitted at a lower rate. B. Electrons are emitted at a higher rate. C. Protons are emitted at a lower rate. D. Protons are emitted at a higher rate. Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B ----------- 1. An atom with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2 has an incomplete MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 2p sublevel B. Second principal energy level C. Third principal energy level D. 4s sublevel 2. What is the total number of electrons in a completely filled fourth principal level? A. 8 B. 10 C. 16 D. 32 3. The characteristic bright line spectrum of an element is produced when its electrons A. Form a covalent bond B. Form an ionic bond C. Move to a higher energy state D. Move to a lower energy state 4. Which emanation has no mass and no charge? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Neutron 5. In which system do molecule-ion attractions exist? A. NaCl(aq) B. NaCl(s) C. C6H12O6(aq) D. C6H12O6(s) 6. A particle accelerator can increase the kinetic energy of A. An alpha particle and a beta particle B. An alpha particle and a neutron C. A gamma ray and a beta particle D. A neutron and a gamma ray 7. What is the total number of electrons needed to completely fill all of the orbitals in an atoms second principal energy level? A. 16 B. 2 C. 8 D. 4 8. An atom in an excited state can have an electron configuration of A. 1s22s2 B. 1s22p1 C. 1s22p2 D. 1s22s22p5 E. 1s22s22p6 9. Compared to the charge and mass of a proton an electron has A. The same charge and smaller mass B. The same charge and the same mass C. The opposite charge and smaller mass D. The opposite charge and the same mass 10. What is the total number of sublevels in the fourth principal energy level? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 11. Which atom in the ground state has only one unpaired electron in its valence shell? A. Aluminum B. Silicon C. Phosphorus D. Sulfur 12. The shape and bonding of a diatomic bromine molecule are best described as A. Symmetrical and polar B. Symmetrical and nonpolar C. Asymmetrical and polar D. Asymmetrical and nonpolar 13. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4? A. 0 B. -2 C. +6 D. +4 14. When alpha particles are used to bombard gold foil, most of the alpha particles pass through undeflected. This result indicates that most of the volume of gold atom consists of A. Neutrons B. Protons C. Deuterons D. Unoccupied space 15. When an alpha particle is emitted by an atom, the atomic number of the atom will A. Decrease by 2 B. Increase by 2 C. Decrease by 4 D. Increase by 4 16. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3p4? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Aluminum 13 B. Silicon 14 C. Sulfur 16 D. Chlorine 17 17. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3p6? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Sulfur 16 B. Chlorine 17 C. Argon 18 D. Potassium 19 18. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 3s1? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Neon 10 B. Sodium 11 C. Magnesium 12 D. Aluminum 13 19. Which of the following element has the corresponding valence subshell of 2p4? Atomic numbers are listed next to the elements. A. Nitrogen 7 B. Oxygen 8 C. Neon 10 D. Magnesium 12 20. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be found in the orbital denoted by the letter f? A. 10 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18 Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. B ------ Biochemistry Practice Questions ------------------------------------------ 1. Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. UAA B. AGU C. AUG D. UGA 2. Which of the types of RNA is the smallest? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA 3. Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine? A. C B. T C. U D. G 4. Which of the following is a correctly paired set of DNA nucleotides? A. A-G B. C-G C. A-U D. G-T 5. Which of the following characterizes a Western blot? A. Antibody/protein hybridization B. DNA/RNA combination C. RNA transcription D. Polymerase chain reaction 6. Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle? A. G2 B. G1 C. S D. G0 7. Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome? A. XXII B. XXI C. XIIX D. XV 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law? A. Mating between species occurs at a set rate. B. Migration is a considerable factor. C. Mutation occurs at the locus D. Genotype selection does not occur at the locus 9. Which of the following is not an activated carrier? A. ATP B. SAM C. TPP D. GMP 10. The end product of the TCA cycle produces ____ NADH. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 11. How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 12. Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)? A. Melatonin B. Serotonin C. Creatine D. Niacin Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C --- Organic Chemistry Practice Questions 1. Which chemical formula is both an empirical formula and a molecular formula? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. CH4 B. C2H6 C. CH3COOH D. CH3CH2COOCH3 2. Which element is present in all organic compounds? A. Hydrogen B. Nitrogen C. Carbon D. Oxygen 3. What products are obtained with CH4(g) burns completely in an excess of oxygen? A. CO and H2O B. CO and C C. CO2 and H2O D. CO2 and CO 4. Which hydrocarbon is a member of the alkene series? A. C2H2 B. C3H6 C. C4H10 D. C4H12 5. Which formula represents butane? A. CH3CH3 B. CH3CH2CH3 C. CH3CH2CH2CH3 D. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 6. A hydrocarbon molecule is considered to be saturated if the molecule contains A. Single covalent bonds, only B. A double covalent bond, only C. A triple covalent bond D. Single and double covalent bonds 7. As a chemical bond forms between 2 hydrogen atoms in a system, energy is released and the stability of the system A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same 8. In a chemical reaction, as the species is oxidized, its oxidation number A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains the same 9. A hydrocarbon with no ring structure, no double or triple bonds is called an ______. A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 10. A hydrocarbon double bonds and no triple bond configuration is called an ______. A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 11. A hydrocarbon with triple bonds is called an _____ A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Alkane D. Alkali 12. Which of the following is the molecular formula for ethylene? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 13. Which of the following is the molecular formula for ethane? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 14. Which of the following is the molecular formula for acetylene? A. C2H2 B. C2H4 C. C2H6 D. C2H8 15. Which of the following is the molecular formula for butane? A. C2H B. C2H6 C. C4H8 D. C4H10 16. Which of the following is the molecular formula for hexane? A. C5H11 B. C5H12 C. C6H12 D. C6H14 17. Which of the following is the molecular formula for pentane? A. C5H11 B. C5H12 C. C6H12 D. C6H14 Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. B ------ 1. What is the pressure of a mixture of CO2, SO2 and H20 gases, if each gas has a partial pressure of 250 torr? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. 250 torr B. 500 torr C. 750 torr D. 1,000 torr 2. A gas sample has a volume of 25.0 milliliters at a pressure of 1.0 atmosphere. If the volume increases to 50.0 milliliters and the temperature remains constant, the new pressure will be A. 1.0 atm B. 2.0 atm C. .250 atm D. .500 atm 3. An increase of the temperature of a system at equilibrium favors the A. Endothermic reaction and decreases its rate B. Endothermic reaction and increases its rate C. Exothermic reaction and decreases its rate D. Exothermic reaction and increases its rate 4. A sample of oxygen gas in a closed system has a volume of 200 milliliters at 600 K. If the pressure is held constant and the temperature is lowered to 300 K, the volume of the gas will be A. 100 ml B. 200 ml C. 300 ml D. 400 ml 5. Which sample of water will have the highest water pressure? A. 10.0 mL at 62° C B. 20.0 mL at 52° C C. 30.0 mL at 42° C D. 40.0 mL at 32° C 6. An assumption of the kinetic energy of gases is that the particles of a gas have A. Little attraction for each other and a significant volume B. Little attraction for each other and an insignificant volume C. Strong attraction for each other and a significant volume D. Strong attraction for each other and an insignificant volume 7. What is the volume occupied by 2.0 moles of Ar(g) at STP? A. 22.4 L B. 44.8 L C. 89.6 L D. 179 L 8. Which gas is least likely to obey the ideal gas laws at very high temperatures and very low temperatures? A. Kr B. Ne C. He D. Xe 9. A gas at STP has a volume of 1.0 liters. If the pressure is doubled and the temperature remains constant, the new volume of the gas will be A. .25 L B. 2.0 L C. .50 L D. 4.0 L 10. At 1 atmosphere of pressure, 25.0 grams of a compound at its boiling point is converted to a gas by the addition of 8,180 calories. What is the heat of vaporization for this compound, in calories per gram? A. 25.0 cal/g B. 327 cal/g C. 540 cal/g D. 8,140 cal/g Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. B ---------- . Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance? MCAT Test Study Guide with Practice Questions A. Plasmid B. Pilus C. Capsule D. Plasma Membrane 2. Which of the following is the most important structure related to microbial attachment to cells? A. Flagellum B. Plasmid C. Peptidoglycan D. Glycocalix 3. Which of the following is not a gram-negative bug? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Vibrio cholerae C. Escherichia coli D. Bordetella pertussis 4. Which of the following is not true related to endotoxins? A. Endotoxins are secreted from cells. B. Can be linked to Meningococcemia C. Produced by gram negative microorganisms D. Can cause fever 5. Which of the following microorganisms stain well? A. Escherichia coli B. Legionella pneumophila C. Treponema D. Chlamydia 6. Which of the following microorganisms are not matched correctly with the appropriate isolation media? A. Fungi - Sabourands agar B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Pink colonies media C. Haemophilus influenzae - Chocolate agar D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Lowenstein-Jensen agar 7. Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly? A. Cellulitis - Pasteurella multocida B. Tularemia - Francisella tularensis C. Gastritis - Heliobacter pylori D. Lyme disease - Yersinia pestis 8. Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly? A. Treponema pallidum - Syphilis B. Tinea nigra - Cladosporium werneckii C. Borrelia burgdorferi - Lyme disease D. Yersinia enterocolitica - Diptheria 9. Which of the following is not true concerning Staphylococcus aureus? A. S. aureus is related to inflammation. B. S. aureus can cause pneumonia C. S. aureus can lead to acute bacterial endocarditis D. S. aureus does not make coagulase 10. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not linked to Haemophilus influenzae? A. Otitis media B. Pneumonia C. Malaria D. Epiglottis 11. The Tsetse fly is a transmission factor for which of the following organisms? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Trypanosoma gambiense C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Toxoplasma 12. The Ixodes tick is a transmission factor for which of the following organisms? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Leishmania donovani C. Babesia D. Giardia lamblia 13. Chagas disease is commonly treated with Nifurtimox and is linked to the ____ microorganism. A. Naegleria B. Schistosoma C. Wucheria bancrofti D. Trypanosoma cruzi 14. Which of the following is not fungal related? A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Tinea nigra D. Chlamydiae 15. Which of the following is not a DNA virus? A. Adenovirus B. Calicivirus C. Papovirus D. Poxvirus 16. Which of the following is not a RNA virus? A. Reovirus B. Orthomyxovirus C. Deltavirus D. Herpesvirus 17. Which of the following viruses is not a double strand linear DNA virus? A. Poxvirus B. Papovavirus C. Adenovirus D. Herpesvirus 18. Which of the following viruses is not a single strand linear RNA virus? A. Togavirus B. Retrovirus C. Bunyavirus D. Picornavirus 19. The Tzanck test is not used on which of the following viruses? A. VZV B. HSV-2 C. HHV-8 D. HSV-1 20. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to UTIs? A. E. coli B. Pseudomonas C. Klebsiella D. Haemophilus Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D ---------------------- For Further MCQs: Visit our page/group JOIN US [ BEST #Eduholics GROUP FOR #MCQs] facebook/groups/573175756133768 facebook/eduholics #MCAT #ECAT #EDUCATION #MCQS #APTITUDETEST
Posted on: Tue, 22 Jul 2014 07:46:27 +0000
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