A 25-year-old woman returns to the office because of intermenstrual spotting since beginning oral contraceptive therapy 6 months ago. This is her first attempt at oral contraceptive therapy; she and her partner primarily used condoms for contraception in the past. Before this current therapy her menstrual periods had always been regular. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A) Advise her to take two pills daily until the bleeding stops B) Discontinue the oral contraceptive therapy and have her resume use of condoms for birth control C) Reassure her that the bleeding problem will resolve in a few months [D) Switch the current oral contraceptive pill to one containing a higher estrogen dose] E) Switch to a progestin-only oral contraceptive pill
Posted on: Fri, 02 Jan 2015 21:43:16 +0000
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