A CASE FOR CESSATIONISM: Tongues & Prophecy (Bear with me for this is long). Ch. 2 of Acts we see tongues. Something to note, tongues is a known human language, NOT gibberish. So the Spirit comes down and divides tongues among the men, and they began to “speak in other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance.” So as they were speaking in tongues in the upper room, people from “every nation under heaven,” heard and were amazed because they were “hearing them speak in his own language.” What did tongues do? In v. 11 they were hearing the mighty works of God in his own language. Some were amazed, and others thought they were drunk. Tongues were for the unbeliever, that the message of Christ might be proclaimed. We see tongues twice more in Acts, in Ch. 10 at Cornelius’ house and then at Ephesus in Ch. 19. Now onto 1 Corinthians. First I’ll make my stop at 1 Corinthians 13:8-10. Prophecy and knowledge will pass away and tongues will cease. The debate comes in v. 10 that the partial will pass away when the “perfect” comes. In its voice the “passing away” (καταργηθήσονται; katargēthēsontai) is passive, meaning something is going to act upon it for it to pass away, this is the perfect mentioned in verse 10. Now the word perfect used here in the Greek is τέλειον (teleion). The biggest debate here is what that perfect is. Now it is very important to look at the Greek here, the gender of the word used for perfect, is “neuter.” The word teleion never refers to Christ. Therefore, this perfect cannot be Christ. One “perfect” referred to Christ can be found in Hebrews 7:28. This word is the τετελειωμένον (teteleiōmenon) and has the gender masculine. Thus concluding the perfect used in 1 Corinthians 13 cannot be Christ. This only leaves us with one more perfect, the Scripture. Since scripture is “breathed out by God” (2 Tim. 3:14) and God is “He who never lies” (Titus 1:2) we understand that the bible is perfect and inerrant. “As for tongues they will cease,” the voice here is the middle. The middle means that it will perform an action that will be acted upon itself. The word here for ceased is παύσονται (pausontai), this is the first and only time it is used in the Scripture. This means that tongues ceased itself. This is why we no longer see tongues in the later books of the new testament. So, tongues ceased itself. Now 1 Corinthians 14. Paul says to “earnestly desire the spiritual gifts, especially that you may prophecy,” so first off, tongues is not at the top of the list to desire. It would be prophecy. For the Corinthians were exercising tongues over prophecy, Paul wrote to correct this. Then in v.2 he exposes their use of tongues. They are speaking not men, but to God, nobody understands him, and he utters mysteries in the Spirit. Paul is pointing out what the Corinthians were doing with tongues, not what tongues is, something to be grasped. Notice how the word tongues in verses 2 and 4 are singular, this is actually Paul separating “a tongue” (the counterfeit) and “tongues” the gift. In. v 3 he desires that they prophesy because it builds up, encourages, and comforts. This type of prophesy is not a “divine revelation” this is the forth-telling. Meaning preaching, teaching, etc. for they understood and it was encouraging and comforting. Divine revelation was not always understood, so how could it be comforting? Whoever speaks in the counterfeit tongue builds himself up, selfish, the counterfeit, gibberish tongue built up only yourself, and not in the good way. But those who prophesy build up the church. In v.5 Paul goes back to the plural tongues, and wishes that they spoke the actual gift, not the counterfeit, but this was truly not Paul’s desire, because it would contrast ch. 12 verses 11 and 30, so they all cannot speak tongues. So everybody within the charismatic movement who claims to speak tongues is even at fault because it wasn’t meant for every believer. Skipping down to v. 9 he points out that they were speaking in a speech that was unintelligible. So how can anyone understand what is said? They are “speaking into the air.” He corrects this by saying that there are many languages in the world, in which all have meaning. (v.10). In v. 11 he mentions the wrong in doing so. And in v. 12 he powerfully corrects them by telling them that since they are so hung up on the “manifestations of the Spirit” to strive to buildup the church (prophecy) and not themselves (tongues). Now in v. 13-17 Paul speaks in a sarcastic tone (as most of the book of Corinthians is written in). In v. 13 he tells them to pray for interpretation of their “tongue” (gibberish) for if they pray in this tongue their spirit prays, but they don’t know, “but my understanding is unfruitful,” so then what “am I to do” he corrects this now in v. 15 when you pray you pray with understanding, when you sing you sing with understanding. In v. 16 if you give thanks in this tongue, how can somebody say “amen” “he does not know what you are saying.” V. 17 he acknowledges that their intention might be good, but that they are doing no good, for nobody is built up. V.18, there is actually no instance in the NT where Paul speaks in tongues, but he, nonetheless knew the gift and its purpose as he will go on to explain through v.25. “Tongues are a sign not for believers, but for unbelievers” v. 22. Why would a believer take something that God created for the purpose of speaking His message to the people, and change it to something so selfish and self building up? Today’s gibberish (as well as the one in Corinth) is therefore not “tongues,” it is a counterfeit from the devil. Another question, why would people base their doctrine off of a corrective letter, and from a church that was the most immature of all, that was written to in the bible?
Posted on: Sat, 30 Nov 2013 21:10:42 +0000
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