A previously healthy 1-year-old boy with a 1-month history of increasingly poor appetite and increasing lethargy and activity was seen by his pediatrician. He had occasional vomiting and diarrhea. The stool had the appearance of current jelly. On physical examination, the boy appeared pale and emaciated. He was lethargic and had soft, non-tender abdomen. There was no ascites present. There was no organomegaly. A CT scan demonstrated no abnormality. Which of the following is true concerning this patients condition? A. The treatment of choice is surgery. B. It can be treated effectively with antibiotics. C. The rate of recurrence is high. D. Boys and girls are affected equally. E. It occurs most commonly in the ileum.
Posted on: Sun, 04 Jan 2015 02:58:00 +0000
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