Does John 1:1 indicate that Jesus existed along side God in the beginning, thus proving Him to be a separate person? ONENESS OBJECTION #6 – THE ETERNAL SON If God and Jesus are One, what about Jesus being with God since the beginning of time? Trinitarians believe that Jesus has eternally existed alongside God the Father since before the foundation of the world. However, there are only three possible ways that Jesus could have existed: As a physical being, as a Spiritual being, or in the mind and eternal plan of God. Trinitarians do not believe He existed in the eternal plan of God, but are divided over whether He existed as a physical or a spiritual being. The Bible will reveal the answer. WHY IS THIS OBJECTION RAISED? This objection is raised mainly due to the following scriptures: John 1: 1 – 3 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. Philippians 2: 6 – 8 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: 8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. (See also John 8: 56; John 17: 5, 24) WHAT ARE SOME OF THE PROBLEMS ENCOUNTERED WITH THIS OBJECTION? 1. If the Son was physically or spiritually present with God the Father since the beginning of time, how exactly did He become God’s son? Where was His mother? There has never been a son without the fusion of a father and a mother. And why is the third person – “God the Holy Spirit”, never given a relationship status to the other two? Or even a name for that matter? 2.Trinitarians refer to Jesus as “God the Son” and claim He was eternal. The Bible refers to Jesus as the Son of God and clearly states He was begotten. (John 3: 16) Did God have a Spiritual Son first, and then send him to become a begotten Son? 3.If the Son was physically or spiritually present with the Father in the beginning, how was He born at Bethlehem? Did God make Him disappear and then reappear in Mary’s womb? For the nine months of gestation, were there only two “persons” of The Trinity in operation? 4.If John 1: 1 is to be interpreted as “the Son was with The Father”, then you must also finish the verse by concluding that the Son was The Father.” 5.If John was trying to teach us about the Trinity in John 1: 1- 3, why did he not mention the Word being with both God the Father AND The Holy Spirit? 6.God the Father does NOT share His glory with another. (See Isaiah 42: v8) 7.God the Father does NOT have an equal. (See Isaiah 46: 5) 8.The Old Testament never mentions the existence of the Son – except when prophetic in nature. Ex., Genesis 3: 15; Isaiah 9:6; Psalms 22: 1. WHAT DOES THE BIBLE ACTUALLY MEAN? The original Greek text used the word, Logos, where it has been interpreted as “Word”. In the beginning, the Logos was with God. The definitions of the word, “Logos” are descriptions such as “thought”, “mind”, “speech” and “plan”. This makes sense, because it was the spoken word, or the speech of God that created the world: Psalm 33: 6 By the word of the LORD were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth. Did you notice the capitalization of LORD in Ps. 33: 6? This signifies God the Father (aka Yahweh, Jehovah). Did we forget that in Genesis 1, “God said let there be…and there was!”? Can there be more than one creator? Of course not: Isaiah 45: 18 For thus saith the Lord that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the Lord; and there is none else. John goes on to reveal that the Word (Logos) was made flesh, and dwelt among men. (See John 1: 14). If you are going to make the “Word” a separate person, what about His “breath”? The truth is, you cannot separate God from His Word or from His breath. The Word was God, and the Word became flesh. Conclusion? God became flesh and walked the earth in a human body. His name was Jesus. Jesus was the revelation and manifestation of the Word (Logos, eternal plan) of God, and the image of the invisible God. (See Col. 1: 15; 1 Timothy 3: 16; John 14: 9) Jesus could not have existed as a physical being since the beginning, because the “Word was MADE flesh”. Flesh cannot be made into flesh. Jesus could not have existed as a spiritual being in the beginning, because that would mean that there were three spiritual beings present at creation – two of them somehow became related as Father and Son, and the third remains a mystery to this day. That theory is simply not supported by any scripture texts. The following scripture clearly causes those two theories to crumble: Galatians 4: 4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law… Did you grasp that? That is how God’s Son came into existence – He was made of a woman. This is in perfect harmony with John 1: 14 and John 3: 16 – “His only begotten Son”. That leaves us with only one undeniable explanation: Jesus existed in the eternal plan of God. Check this scripture out: Revelation 13: 8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. We know that Jesus was not actually slain until he died at Calvary in AD 33, but in the eternal plan (mind) of God He was slain from the beginning of the world. Similarly, In Jesus’ prayer in John 17, He says, “for You loved Me before the foundation of the world.” (v.24) God told Jeremiah, “Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee…” Jer. 1:5. Does anybody believe Jeremiah pre-existed in Heaven? What this means is that God knows the end from the beginning. God has always had a plan. Concerning Philippians 2: 6 – 8, This does not teach “co-equal persons”, because God cannot have an equal (Is. 46:5). Jesus was the visible image (form) of the invisible God (Col. 1: 15) Why did He did not think it to be robbery (blasphemy) to be equal to God? Because He WAS God. Why did He not consider Himself to be robbing the glory from God? Because He and the Father were not two, they were One (John 10:30). The Pharisees knew exactly what He was claiming to be when He forgave sins. They wanted Him stoned for blasphemy, because who could forgive sins, but God only? (See Mark 2: 7) Though He was God incarnate, He willingly stripped himself of all Royal privileges to humble Himself in a human body and become obedient to death. The Jews were looking for a King; God threw them a curveball and came as a servant. Conclusion It is very important to note that John 1: 1 - 3 was written AFTER John had observed and absorbed every last word of Jesus, including His prayer in John 17. Yet John never declared that the SON was with God; he said the WORD was with God. When the Word became flesh, that “holy thing” was given the title of The Son of God. (See Luke 1: 35) This is how the Son of God came into existence. God’s eternal plan was to come and redeem His people from their sins. (Genesis 3: 15) God the Father was made flesh and dwelt among men. (1 Timothy 3:16) The One who created the world, stepped into the world He created (John 1: 10, 14), and YOU were the reason why. @Back on Track Bible Studies - Rick Flores From Withstanding The Winds. See page or message me for info on obtains bible studies.
Posted on: Thu, 11 Dec 2014 02:52:23 +0000
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