If someone is in a lesser status by consent, (citizen) they can only own property in a qualified form, correct? This is fee simple in real estate if I am understanding this properly. Thusly, a soverign individual owns property in an unqualified manner. Alloidal title I believe is the proper term. But if all the land is within the various corporate entities known as counties and townships, how is it possible to do so? I am ignorant and seriously trying to understand this. Forgive me, this was not meant to be argumentative.
Posted on: Thu, 13 Mar 2014 07:29:55 +0000
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