In the wake of the freedom of expression debate that has arisen post the #CharlieHebdo killings, there are some questions in my mind. While there is no doubt that freedom of expression is sacrosanct and a universal right, sometimes I wonder if it is indeed universal. How does it pan down in real life? Can freedom of expression (FoE) be completely divorced from the larger political and economic realities? For instance, will FoE enjoyed by a Dalit woman be the same as a FoE enjoyed by an upper caste upper class man? I am prompted to think about freedom of movement, which is a fundamental right in India. Can a woman go out late at night freely like a man can? Do we enjoy the same freedom of movement that men largely enjoy? The answer is obviously no. So, while we agree that FoE is universal, can we agree that the Foe enjoyed by some groups is greater than other groups?
Posted on: Fri, 09 Jan 2015 08:11:16 +0000
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