Question on secularism. If the Hindus in India were only 50% of the total electorate, what would the appeasement politics dictate the definition of Secularism or will anyone talk of it at all? So who is being asked to be Secular actually by the non-communal tribes? Those who are already secular in deed and thought or those who practice Communalism in the garb of pseudo-secularism? How does the pseudo-secular intend to enforce their idea of Secularism? Arent Indians as it is already secular enough to allow within the constitution the word and believe in Karma as the guiding principle then dharma?
Posted on: Mon, 28 Apr 2014 05:18:11 +0000
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