THE WRITER.. WHO WAS THE WRITER OF PSALM 101:1?? was it david or one of his writers or scribes or secretaries?? let us read very carefully 2 samuel 22:38-29.. 2 Samuel 22:38-39 (NIV)... 38. I pursued my enemies and crushed them; I did not turn back till they were destroyed. 39. I crushed them completely, and they could not rise; THEY FELL BENEATH MY FEET. surely it was david who said that his enemies fell under his feet... for, it was repeated in psalm 18:38... and because of such, it shows that the one being mentioned in the book of psalms, that his enemies were under his feet, was david.. Psalm 18:38 (NIV)... 38. I crushed them so that they could not rise; THEY FELL BENEATH MY FEET. Psalm 8:3-6 (NIV)... 3. When I consider your heavens, the work of your fingers, the moon and the stars, which you have set in place, 4. what is man that you are mindful of him, the son of man that you care for him? 5. You made him a little lower than the heavenly beings and crowned him with glory and honor. 6. You made him ruler over the works of your hands; YOU PUT EVERYTHING UNDER HIS FEET: while in psalm 8:3-6, the writer was pointing to himself as that son of man,.. he was asking why is God was so good to him and why God put his enemies under his feet.. david was not referring to Jesus in psalm 8:3-6, but to himself.. thus, in psalm 101:1, the other lord thereat is not Jesus but david.. that God is commanding david to walk with God and/or to sit in His right hand and for and so that God will make davids enemies under his feet.. the other Lord thereat, in psalm 101:1, of course is God.. now, if the other lord in psalm 101:1 is david, who wrote then psalm 101:1?? if we are to read 2 samuel 22:38-39 and other verses of the book of psalms, clearly david claimed God had put davids enemies under his feet.. presented below is the controversial psalm 101:1.. Psalm 110:1 (NIV).. 1. The LORD says to my Lord: Sit at my right hand until I make YOUR ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR YOUR FEET. if Jesus did not study the scriptures nor He went to the schools of law in israel during His time, like paul during that pauls time,... why then Jesus have chosen and have used or have quoted psalm 101:1 as response to those who asked Him if from or from what lineage the Messiah will come (matthew 22:42-45)?? psalm 101:1 is and has double meaning.. and anyone who will come to encounter such verse, you will surely be thrown into confusions since there were two LORD words written in that verse.. Matthew 22:42-45 (NIV)... 42. What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he? The son of David, they replied. 43. He said to them, HOW THEN IS IT THAT DAVID, speaking by the Spirit, CALLS HIM Lord? For he says, 44. The Lord said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand until I PUT YOUR ENEMIES UNDER YOUR FEET. 45. If then David calls him Lord, how can he be his son? to my opinion, it was not david who wrote psalm 101:1, it was one of davids writers.. Jesus used psalm 101:1 as a response to those who asked Him about the Messiah to indirectly say to His audience that there is no other Savior than God Himself Whom david and/or davids writer called Lord.. but of course, Jesus utterances of psalm 101:1 is not only for His audience during that time but also for us, for the future, to fool more the fool who do not believe that Jesus is God and One with the Father so that in the day of the Lord, in the last days, the real elects wisdom will shine more over the knowledge and intelligence of the pretenders (those pretenders who claimed they knew Jesus very well but in truth they are the agents of the devil sent to sow confusions and to possible drag others to hell) and those who lack enough faith to believe that Jesus is God and the lone Messiah of israel and the world..
Posted on: Mon, 27 Jan 2014 03:59:28 +0000
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