WHAT IF THERE IS NO PROOF? I am troubled this morning. I have made clear that I think cheating is bad, and if they New England Patriots (any of them) did anything to take air out of the footballs, then THEY CHEATED. Period. And if that is the case that I am filled with shame for continuing to root for them. (which has earned me the creative scorn of many). But... But. But. But...... But what if there is no proof that anyone took an affirmative action to deflate the balls? I know they they can prove the existence of balls that are air-deficient. But does that mean that someone necessarily and definitionally took air out of the footballs? I am not sure. And with the absence of proof (if there is such an absence) can/should the Patriots be punished? In other words, is the existence of deflated footballs a violation in and of itself, or is the act of deflating them the violation, and is that latter event what you have to prove? Think about it. Is underinflated the same thing as deflated? I know why there is doubt, and I know the reasons for the doubt are justified. I also know that it is difficult to imagine an innocuous scenario where the balls fell below the limit with no tampering. Difficult ALMOST to the point of impossible. Almost. Is that enough for a harsh punishment? Is this why the NFL seems so slow in taking action?
Posted on: Fri, 23 Jan 2015 12:35:51 +0000
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