An ancient maxim of Anglo-American law, going back at least as far as Lord Cokes decision in Bonhams Case (1610), holds that no one should be a judge in his own case. Why, one might well wonder, does this principle not preclude the federal courts from exercising jurisdiction in disputes between the federal government and others? Only a fool would expect justice from a judge whose salary is paid by one of the parties in the case at issue, and the record appears to bear out that federal judges are biased in favor of the government. Indeed, in some situations where the government drastically expands its powers in seemingly unlawful and unconstitutional ways -- most notably during wartime -- the federal courts in general and the U.S. Supreme Court in particular virtually roll over and play dead.
Posted on: Sun, 06 Jul 2014 04:15:51 +0000
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