PART IV: INTERESTING FACTS ABOUT THE BIBLE: DOES THE INSPIRATION - TopicsExpress



          

PART IV: INTERESTING FACTS ABOUT THE BIBLE: DOES THE INSPIRATION OF THE BIBLE EXTEND TO EVERY PART? Yes. From the dry lists in Chronicles to the very words of God in Exodus, and through Christ. And more, it extends to every sentence, word, mark, point, jot and tittle in the original parchments. When Jesus said in Matt. 5:17-18, That not one jot or tittle should pass from the Law until all be fulfilled, he referred to the smallest letter (jot) and the smallest mark (tittle), of the Hebrew language, thus indicating that even they were inspired, and were necessary for a complete understanding of Gods meaning in His Word. But how about the words of Satan, and wicked and uninspired men, the genealogical tables, and the account of the Fall of Man, the Flood and other historical portions of the Bible? They were inspired of Record. That is, the inspired penman or historian was told what historical facts to record and what to omit. To one who has read the Old Testament, and also profane history covering the same period, with its legends and traditions, and detailed descriptions, it is very clear that the writers of the Old Testament were divinely inspired to record only those things that would throw light on Gods Plan and Purpose in the Ages. III. HOW Were These Men Inspired to Write the Scriptures? Were they simply thrown into a kind of spell or ecstasy or trance and wrote under its influence whatever came into their mind? Or did God through the Holy Spirit, dictate to them the exact words to use? We know that thoughts can only be expressed in words and those words must express the exact thought of the speaker or writer, otherwise his exact thought is not expressed. We see then that inerrancy demands that the sacred writer be simply an amanuensis (i.e, a person employed to write or type what another dictates). This we see is what the Scriptures claim for themselves. In 2 Peter 1:20-21, we read that No prophecy of the Scripture is of any private interpretation. That is, no man has a right to say what the Scriptures, according to his opinion, means. Why? Because The Prophecy came not in old time by the will of man, but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the HOLY GHOST. And this is confirmed by the fact that much that the Old Testament Prophets wrote, they did not themselves understand 1 Peter 1:10-11. They must then have seen mere amanuenses, recoding words that needed an interpreter. That they were mere instruments is shown by the fact that not all of them were good or holy men, as Balaam ( Number 22:38; Number 23:26), King Saul ( 1Sam. 10:10-12; 1Sam. 19:20-22), the Prophet of Bethel, (1 Kings 13:7-9; 1Kings 20:22; 1Kings 20:26), and Caiaphas, John 11:49-51. That the Old Testament writers spake and wrote the exact words that God gave to them is clear from their own statements.. Moses declares that the Lord said unto him, Now therefore go, and I will be with thy mouth, and teach thee what thou shalt say. Ex. 4:10-12. The Prophet Jeremiah says, Then the Lord put forth His hand, and touched my mouth, And the Lord said unto me, Behold, I have put My Words In Thy Mouth. Jer. 1:6-8. Ezekiel, Daniel, and all the prophets make the same claim. The expressions The Lord said, The Lord spake saying, Thus Saith the Lord etc, occur 560 times in the Pentateuch, 300 times in the Historical and Prophetical books, 1200 times in the Prophets (24 times in Malachi alone), in all over 2000 times in the Old Testament, thus proving the statement of Peter, that Holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. But you say If this be true how do you account for the difference of style of the writers, for Isaiahs style is different from Fzekiels or Daniels, and Peters from that of John or Paul? This is easily explained. On the principle that when we wish a legal document written we choose a lawyer, or a poetical article a poet, etc., so God when He wanted to speak in symbols chose an Ezekiel, a Daniel, a John, or in poetry a David. How are we to explain the fact that sometimes a New Testament writer in quoting from the Old Testament, instead of quoting literally paraphrases the quotation? That, we will see when we come back. (From Dispensational Truths by Clarence Larkin)
Posted on: Tue, 11 Nov 2014 18:32:09 +0000

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