I have one for the group. 37 yr old male otherwise healthy, mild compression of nerves in C5-6 possible bone spur. Wakes up suddenly vomiting uncontrollably, after about 2 hours of consistent vomiting his wife takes him to the local ER, where they still can not control the vomiting with Zofran. The wife (being a medic) asks for a different nausea med at which time he is attached to the monitor, RR 4, Pulse 178, pulse ox 86 on rm air. Nurse feels the monitor is broke and walks out. Wife asks Dr for EKG which shows A-Fib with RVR. NOW this young man has zero symptoms leading up to this and zero family history. Upon beibg admitted to the cardiac floor he is placed on Cardizem drip and eventually converts back to NSR. They preformed a TEE and discovered a PFO and aortic hypertrophy due to over compensation. My question is this with no basic signs or sympotoms how is one to know this wasnt a basic stomach flu? How likely is the A-Fib to reoccur on oral meds?
Posted on: Sat, 07 Sep 2013 16:01:58 +0000
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