Lets watch this closely once more brethren: Jesus never quoted this verse to prove himself being God, although he quoted the Old Testament a lot, the Jews accused him of blasphemy more than one time, and he never quoted this verse to prove his position (if we assumed it really does), but actually when he was accused of blasphemy, he quoted another verse which totally disproves that he is God; Psalm 82:6 : “I said, ‘You are “gods”; you are all sons of the Most High.’ Jesus quotes it saying: Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, ye are gods? Joh 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came (and the scripture cannot be broken), Joh 10:36 say ye of him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? Jesus is simply saying, these judges in the OT were called gods, although for sure they are not God, so what’s wrong that I am also called son of God as I am sanctified by God? I am called the son of God as these judges were called gods, are these judges really God? The same thing applies to me being called son of God. It’s just a metaphor. If Jesus really believed that he is God, why didn’t he quote Isaiah 9:6 which Christians always quoted to prove that he is God instead of comparing himself with some people who are called gods? Simply because he didn’t believe that he is God and he was denying the Jewish accusation. Thank you all! :)
Posted on: Sun, 20 Jul 2014 14:40:24 +0000