Why do all Bible translations translate John 3:16 with whoever - TopicsExpress



          

Why do all Bible translations translate John 3:16 with whoever when that word is not there: ...that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.? Why not translate it as it is: every one [i.e. individual] who is [currently] believing? In one sense, it is splitting hairs. However, because of the current ideas surrounding this passage, it is probably best to emphasize the proper translation. The believing evidences eternal life. It is not advising how to get it. The point that Nicodemus had to absorb is that since he did not believe (v.12) it was evident that he did not have eternal life, was not entering the kingdom, and was under the judgment of God (vv. 18-21). Remember, this narrative was a conversation between the Lord and Nicodemus. Nicodemus, along with every person we speak with, must understand that they are not any more in charge of the plan of God than a person who has control over his own physical birth (vv. 4-8). Once again, a person does not determine if he is going to enter the kingdom or not. The response to the gospel is completely by the will of God (John 1:12-13). Yet, we continue to preach Christ, Him crucified, with all the reason, power, pleading and passion as possible so that by the will of God we might save some. God grants faith by means of the Word of Christ (Romans 10:17).
Posted on: Tue, 23 Dec 2014 18:30:41 +0000

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