Your patient is a 50-year-old man with Type 1 (insulin-requiring) - TopicsExpress

Your patient is a 50-year-old man with Type 1 (insulin-requiring) diabetes , normal renal function, and no microalbuminuria . Although his HbA1c levels are acceptable, because of his lifestyle and eating habits he has experienced more than a few episodes of symptomatic hypoglycemia following insulin injections . He currently has asymptomatic hyperuricemia , but he has had several attacks of acute gout over the last 5 years . Today you diagnose hypertension that must be treated. Which anti hypertensive drug would be the most rational first choice for starting his anti hypertensive therapy? a . Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker b. β-adrenergic blocker c. Nifedipine d. Thiazide diuretic e. Verapamil or diltiazem

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